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May 22,2008, 08:12 PM
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#1 | | Full PFC Member | Simple Pot Odds
Hello all, what is the easiest way to figure out pot odds? Does anyone have a simple way of doing this? I know this is a very basic question but will help me and likely others.
thanks
labeach
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May 23,2008, 12:35 AM
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#2 | | Full PFC Member
Join Date: Aug 2005
Posts: 1,118
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Deleted
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Haddon's suggestion
Last edited by 13CARDS; Apr 02,2009 at 09:29 PM.
Reason: Haddon's Suggestion
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May 23,2008, 07:45 AM
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#3 | | Limit Donkey/NLHE Fish
Join Date: Oct 2007
Posts: 861
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Originally Posted by 13CARDS Amount to call/Amount in pot
OR
Amount in pot/Amount to call | As a double-check, your bet is included in what's in the pot before you figure out the odds right?
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"...the monkey looks to make sure we are not playing limit at Brantford." - Redington
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May 23,2008, 08:23 AM
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#4 | | It's phonetic! |
Just to clarify a bit...
if you're looking to calculate how much is in the pot, well, just take the time and count the chips.... if you're wondering how much it'll be if you want to raise the pot, it's pot+your call of any previous bets (eg. pot is 100, someone pots - $200, you want to re-pot it's now a total of $400 to you - calling the $100 bet makes a $300 pot, so the pot raise is $300).
If you're talking about if you should draw or not, the easiest is the rule of 4's and 2's. Count your outs, and if there's two cards to come (i.e. you're going to be all in on the flop) you times that # by 4 (9 outs is ~36%). If you only get to see one more card, it's times 2 (9 outs is ~18%). It's not perfect, but it's close enough for most decisions.
Mark
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Life's usually simple, just not always easy
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May 23,2008, 11:15 AM
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#5 | | Full PFC Member |
Thanks Mark, thats a much more helpful response than the first. How do you relate the pot size and odds of catching together and make a decision based on that? Or are they two stand alone things. Using the amount of chips in the pot with or without the raise how do I decide if i'm getting "odds" to call?
thanks again
labeach
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May 23,2008, 12:26 PM
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#6 | | Cash games are evil!
Join Date: Dec 2005
Posts: 1,963
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don't forget implied odds as well, as this is a very important concept besides pot odds. Sometimes you may not have the pot odds to call based on the math but the implied odds, based on future chips you may obtain if you hit one of your outs. PKR - How to calculate poker pot odds
Last edited by pokerJAH; May 23,2008 at 12:31 PM.
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May 23,2008, 12:38 PM
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#7 | | SHIP IT, BITCHES!
Join Date: Oct 2004
Posts: 3,388
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strange thread, coming from a guy who has been a member here for almost 3 years?
i'm guessing you haven't read a lot of poker books? i'd recommend starting with something like Theory of Poker.
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I can't tell you how awesome it feels to win a WSOP bracelet!
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May 23,2008, 12:54 PM
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#8 | | It's phonetic! |
Steve:
To make a call "correct" in terms of EV (expected value), the odds of your making your hand has to be lower than the odds the pot / bet is laying you. Let's do a common example:
Say you know your opponent has top pair top kicker on this board:
Ah-6h-4c
Now you have KhQh, so you have a draw to the nut flush or 9 outs.
Let's say your opponent and you have built a pot of $10, and he bets you all in for your remaining $4. His bet makes the pot $14, and you need to call $4 to win it, which means the pot is laying you about 3.5 to one odds (14/4). Now, you know that you have 9 outs, and if you put yourself all in, you get to see both of the next two cards, so we use the rule of 4... 9 outs x 4 = 36% chance, or a little better than 3:1 to hit, but let's just say 3:1.
In this case, since the odds you are getting from the pot are bigger than your odds to hit, you should call. I find it easier to understand if you do the actual "big numbers". If you find yourself in this scenario 10 times, you will hit your hand 3-4 times, earning a total of $14 each time, so you MAKE $42-$56. But, you will lose 6-7 times, and therefore lose that extra $4 each time, which means you LOSE $24-$28. Overall, you're making money, so this call is "+EV" (disclaimer: I may be doing the math / wording wrong, but I'm tired, so GFY).
Now, same hand, let's say you have $8 back and he puts you all in. The odds change now, you've got to spend $8 to win $18, which is about 2.25:1 odds (18/8), and you still have your 3:1 chance of winning. THIS time, the payouts change, you win 3-4 times out of ten for a profit of $54-$72, but this time you're losing $56-$64 on the 6-7 times you lose, so this is a bad call or "-EV".
Now, ten times in this situation is by no means a big enough number for the odds to work out, you may win 5-6 times, hell you may win all 10, but over the "long term" (read: Thousands and thousands of hands) where you're in this situation, it'll work out this way. Sometimes you'll see an actual number beside the "+/- EV", and I believe that is simply the amount of money you can expect to win - on average - every time you make that move.
IMPLIED odds, as was mentioned above, is a guesstimation (usually) as to how much you can milk the bettor if you DO make your hand. In these cases neither of you can be all in (or there's no implied odds - no more money to be won). I think the most common "implied odds call" is for small - medium pocket pairs calling a raise. You hit your set, and you've got a well disguised monster than someone who catches something like top pair will pay you off on....
Hope that helps - man it's a slow day at work.
Mark
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Life's usually simple, just not always easy
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May 23,2008, 01:10 PM
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#9 | | Full PFC Member
Join Date: Dec 2005
Posts: 913
| Quote:
Originally Posted by labeach2002 Thanks Mark, thats a much more helpful response than the first. How do you relate the pot size and odds of catching together and make a decision based on that? Or are they two stand alone things. Using the amount of chips in the pot with or without the raise how do I decide if i'm getting "odds" to call?
thanks again
labeach |
It may not be the right way....but the way I do it is simply by thinking about the money. 1. What's the total pot (before my call) and then 2. what amount do I have to call.
Here's my easiest example. I've raised with AJ (terrible i know) to 3x bb of 300....so to 900 total. Mark in the big blind goes all in for 900 more for a total of 1800. Pot is now 1800+900+150sb. for a total of 2850. My call would obviously be 900. so i have to spend 900 to win 2850. I'm getting slightly more than 3 to 1 on my money. Unless I can put Mark on a bigger ace I have to call. Ie if Mark shows me Queens I still pretty much have to call (I'm hoping he has 78o).
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We can all use some extra redundancy.
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May 23,2008, 01:13 PM
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#10 | | Cash games are evil!
Join Date: Dec 2005
Posts: 1,963
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Originally Posted by pkrfce9 i'm guessing you haven't read a lot of poker books? i'd recommend starting with something like Theory of Poker. | Sometimes its not what you read but what you remember. You can witness my total disregard for pot odds later tonight. Save me a seat, on your left of course |
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May 23,2008, 01:24 PM
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#11 | | It's phonetic! |
AJo vs QQ is like 71.xx to 28.xx %
AcKc vs AJo (no club) is 73.xx to 22.xx%
Not a great example, since they're VERY close to one another in odds.... if you "have to call" the QQ, you also "have to call" the AK....
Mark
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Life's usually simple, just not always easy
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May 23,2008, 01:40 PM
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#12 | | Full PFC Member | Quote:
Originally Posted by DrTyore Steve:
9 outs x 4 = 36% chance, or a little better than 3:1 to hit, but let's just say 3:1. | Great explanation Mark, but one minor mistake. With 9 outs on the flop, you're closer to 2:1 to complete by the river.
Also, your samples assume all-in calls on the flop. If you're call does not put you all-in (you're not guaranteed to see the river without calling another bet), you should use the rule of 2 to calculate your pot odds to complete by the next card.
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May 23,2008, 01:47 PM
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#13 | | It's phonetic! | Quote:
Originally Posted by MarcoGD Great explanation Mark, but one minor mistake. With 9 outs on the flop, you're closer to 2:1 to complete by the river.
Also, your samples assume all-in calls on the flop. If you're call does not put you all-in (you're not guaranteed to see the river without calling another bet), you should use the rule of 2 to calculate your pot odds to complete by the next card. | Run it... AcKc vs KhQh on a Ah2h7c board 37.17% KQ wins 62.83% AK wins
And I stated that the villain was putting you all in.
Mark
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Life's usually simple, just not always easy
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May 23,2008, 02:10 PM
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#14 | | Living Legend
Join Date: Apr 2004 Location: Toronto
Posts: 3,079
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AJo vs QQ is like 71.xx to 28.xx %
| Not to radically overhaul your game or anything, but I dont think AJo is a 71% fav in this scenario.
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May 23,2008, 02:20 PM
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#15 | | It's phonetic! |
yea yea.. switch the numbers...
Mark
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Life's usually simple, just not always easy
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