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Old Oct 13,2006, 05:15 PM   #1
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Two hands from different perspective

$0.5/$1 NL 6max

Player 1 has around $40 . Table image this player is that he/she is loose a aggressive player who likes to pick up "unwanted" pots, or pots which he believe his oppoent missed the board and simply have overcards
Player 2 has $90. Table image of this player is that he/she is generally pretty tight with his/her starting hand requirements, and tends to overvalue draws.

Player 1 is in the SB with player 2 in the BB.

Player in MP raises to $3, called by CO, SB raises to $10, BB flat calls and both MP and CO calls. ($40) in the pot.

Flop 10 6 2 (2 spades)

Player 1 insta-pushes in for his last $30. Player 2 isolates by re-raising to $60. Both MP and CO folds.

What range of hands would you put player 1 and player 2 on?

Answers to come later and part 2 will be: do you agree with his/her plays.

Last edited by westside8; Oct 14,2006 at 10:59 PM.
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Old Oct 14,2006, 04:11 AM   #2
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Range for player 1: I probably put player 1 on a wide range here JJ-AA, AT, any spade draw, maybe AK or AQ depends how loose this guy is with his postflop stealing

Range for player 2: I wish you had included the suit of each flop card... cause i could see player 2 doing this with a hand like ATs (if that's possible, like if the 10 on the board isn't the Ts) anyway, ATs if possible would be in my range... also AA-TT, 66 maybe, but unlikely considering the tight preflop hand selection.
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Last edited by specialK; Oct 14,2006 at 04:14 AM.
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Old Oct 14,2006, 05:30 PM   #3
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I don't think player 1 had $70 pre-flop but I may have misread your post.

I put player 1 on any 2 cards. His re-raise was so small he had to know he was getting called. So I'd interpret that to be a pot-building raise. A TAG I might put on AA or KK here but not a LAG. He's looking for an innocent flop to make a move. Given the flop without a lot of draws, he could be making an almost pot-sized bet to chase everyone out since they likely did not hit.

I put player 2 on JJ or 2 big suited spades. I don't know why he'd raise on the flop without pushing. He doesn't not have enough chips left for an effective bet on the turn or river.

I'm curious what the other 2 called the re-raise pre-flop with
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Old Oct 14,2006, 10:59 PM   #4
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Quote:
Originally Posted by pkrfce9 View Post
I don't think player 1 had $70 pre-flop but I may have misread your post.
You are right. It was a simple typo of typing $70 instead of $40.

Quote:
Originally Posted by specialK View Post
Range for player 2: I wish you had included the suit of each flop card... cause i could see player 2 doing this with a hand like ATs (if that's possible, like if the 10 on the board isn't the Ts) anyway, ATs if possible would be in my range... also AA-TT, 66 maybe, but unlikely considering the tight preflop hand selection.
It was 10 2 of spades, 6 of clubs.
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Old Oct 15,2006, 12:20 PM   #5
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to my range for player 2 i would like to add AKs AQs
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